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January 13, 2006
Homework Syllabus for all sect
The second homework assignment (to be assigned in class today) is due on Wednesday morning 1/18/2006 (day of next lecture).
Exercises from the text: 3.2, 3.4, 3.5, 3.20, 12.35, 12.49
Read sections 4.5-4.6 on Amortized Analysis.
NOTE: This is the final assignment. No more updates.
Posted by ringger at January 13, 2006 08:29 AM
Comments
12.49 seems to require a lot of in-depth understanding of transforming NP-complete problems into each other. In class, I thought we clarified that an in-depth understanding of these transformations were deep and outside the scope of this class. Maybe I came away with the wrong idea. In any case, a proof of this question is deeper than I (or TA Ryan) could give. Can anyone help me with what is expected for this problem? Thanks.
Posted by: Andrew Arnott
at January 17, 2006 04:48 PM
Andrew (or anyone else),
I didn't bring my book home could you tell me what the question is for 12.49? Once I get that, I'll post some hopefully useful info.
Mike.
Posted by: Mike Jones
at January 17, 2006 06:45 PM
12.49:
Prove that any two NP-complete problems arae polynomially Turing equivalent.
Posted by: dkendall
at January 17, 2006 07:38 PM
Ok, that's a question that looks like you need to know deep complexity theory about NP completeness but you really don't. I sketch out why. My goal here is to set up the probme in a way that makes it easier to see the solution without giving away the solution. That way you get the joy of the "aha" moment :)
"polynomially Turing equivalent" means that problems A and B are polynomially Turing equivalent if A is polynomial-Turing-reducible to B and B is polynomial-Turing reducible to A. Polynomial-Turing-reducible is that less-than-or-equal-to sign with a T subscript and a p superscript. A is is polynomial-turing-reducible B if the following fact is true:
There is an algorithm for solving A. That algorithm runs in polynomial time (on a deterministic Turing machine). That algorithm is allowed to ask a question of the form "is a solution for B" as often as it likes and it gets an answer to that question in 1 time unit
So that's polynomial Turing equivalence.
Your objective is to show that any two NP-complete problems are polynomial Turing equivalent. So you need to show that they are both reducible to each other.
You get to assume that both problems are NP-complete. The key to this problem is to exploit that assumption. A problem X is NP-complete if it is
- X is in NP
- All other problems in NP are polynomial-Turing-reducible the X.
Hopefully that's enough to see the solution without doing all the work for you. Have fun with it!
Mike.
Posted by: Mike Jones
at January 17, 2006 09:11 PM
Aha! Thanks for the explanation.
Posted by: dkendall
at January 17, 2006 10:44 PM
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